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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which two statements about carrier-grade NAT are true? (Choose two.)
A. A service provider translates the private IP address of its customer to another private IP address.
B. A service provider issues private IP addresses to its customers.
C. It conserves IPv4 addresses.
D. It is implemented on the CE and PE routers.
E. It is designed to simplify IPv6 addressing.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r3.9.1/cg_nat/configuration/guide/ cgc391cgn.html#wp1268988
Carrier Grade NAT Overview
Carrier Grade Network Address Translation (CGN) is a large scale NAT that is capable of providing private IPv4 to public IPv4 translation in the order of millions of translations to support several hundred thousand subscribers and bandwidth throughput of at least 10 Gbps full-duplex.
CGN is a workable solution to the IPv4 address depletion problem while offering a way for service provider subscribers and content providers to implement a graceful transition to IPv6. CGN employs network address and port translation (NAPT) methods to aggregate many private IP addresses into fewer public IPv4 addresses. For example, a single public IPv4 address with a pool of 32 K port numbers supports 320 individual private IP subscribers assuming each subscriber requires 100 ports (for example, each TCP connection needs one port number).
A CGN requires IPv6 to assist with the transition from IPv4 to IPv6.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which three options are true about the Global Person model?
A. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person.
B. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.
C. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.
D. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.
E. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no current contact relationships with other workers.
Answer: A,B,E

NEW QUESTION: 3
What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?
A. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply agreement.
B. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be assessed.
C. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The standard requires that service performance is assessed by monitoring and reporting against service level targets. However, it does not define specific KPIs, as these will differ depending upon the situation (organization, services, agreed targets etc).
B. Correct. The Specification (Part 1) of the standard defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
C. Incorrect. The requirements need to be driven by the business needs of the customer, not by the standard. The standard can help to ensure that suppliers are managed towards the provision of quality services.
D. Incorrect. This is not the purpose of the ISO/IEC 20000 standard. The Specification (Part 1) of the standard defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.

NEW QUESTION: 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an alert policy as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:
Explanation:

Explanation:
The 'Activity is' setting is configured as 'Detected malware in file'. This setting means the policy is applied to files stored in SharePoint or OneDrive.
The Aggregation settings has a 120 minute window. This means that if there 20 detections in 120 minutes, an email will be generated. Therefore, the maximum number of emails generated in 24 hours is 12.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/alert-policies

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